MCQ. Community Health Nursing

Infectious Diseases
1. The last case of smallpox was reported in the world in:
A. 1977
B. 1978
C. 1979
D. 1982
2. Smallpox was eradicated because of the following factors except:
A. Potent vaccine
B. Easy to recognize
C. Extra human reservoir control
D. Long incubation period
3. Which of the following is true of chickenpox?
A. Virus is not found in scab =
B. Virus can be grown on the chick embryo
C. Caused by RNA virus
D. Does not cross the placental barrier  
4. Infectivity of chickenpox last
A. Till the last scab fall offs
B. 3 days after appearance of rash
C. 6 days after appearance of rash
D. As long as fever last  
5. All stages of rash are seen in:
A. Chickenpox
B. Smallpox
C. Measles
D. Typhoid  
6. Carriers are associated with transmission of disease in all except:
A. Typhoid
B. Cholera
C. Measles
D. Diphtheria  
7. Koplik's spots are seen in:
A. Rubella
B. Rubeola
C. Typhoid
D. Chickenpox  
8. All are true about measles except:
A. Incubation period of 10 to 14 days
B. Secondary attack rate of 30%
C. More severe in malnourished
D. Sub clinical infection
9. Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can occur in infection with:
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Mumps
D. Chickenpox
10. Which of the following diseases gives life-long immunity after an attack?
A. Mumps
B. Typhoid
C. Tetanus
D. Diphtheria  
11. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Vibrio cholerae were identified by:
A. Van Helmholtz (1843)
B. Robert Koch (1843-1910)
C. Louis Pasteur (1822-1895)
D. Van Leeuwenhoek (1683),
12. The bacillus that causes plague is called:
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Fusobacterium clostridiformis
C. S. aureus
D. C. perfringens
13. Which of the following antibiotics is effective only against gram-positive bacteria?
A. Streptomycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Amikacin
D. Pencillins
14. Which of the following antibiotics is specifically effective against anerobic bacteria?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Erythromycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Gentamicin
15. Patients with G6PD deficiency may develop haemolysis when treated with_:
A. Sulphonamides
B. Isoniazid
C. Cephalosporins
D. E rythromycin
16. Which of the following is a bacteriostatic, which acts by reversible inhibition of ribosomal protein synthesis?
A. Vancomycin
B. Tetracyclines
C. Cephalosporins
D. Isoniazid
17. Which of the following is a orally effective first-generation cephalosporin?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Cephalexin
C. Cefazolin
D. Ceftazidime
18. Which of the following drugs has neuromuscular blocking adverse effect?
A. Imipenam
B. Macrolides
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Cephalosporin
19. Which of the following is NOT a macrlide group of antibiotics?
A. Erythromycin
B. Azithromycin
C. Roxithromycin
D. Gentamicin
20. Bone marrow depression is an adverse reaction of :
A. Tetracycline
B. Azithromycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Netilmycin
21. Nitrofurantoin is a bactericidal agent used for the treatment of:
A. respiratory tract infections
B. skin infections
C. staphylococcal infections
D. urinary tract infections
22. Fluoroquinolones are NOT effective against:
A. pseudomonas
B. clostridium difficile
C. klebsiella
D. proteus
23. Ciprofloxacin is a belongs to which group of antibiotics?
A. fluoroquinolone
B. macrolide
C. cephalosporin
D. aminoglycosides
24. Red man syndrome is associated with:
A. Vancomycin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin
25. Grey baby syndrome, seen in infants, characterised by progressive abdominal distention, pallor, cyanosis and vasomotor collapse 3-4 days are asscociated with used of:
A. sulphadiazine
B. clindamycin
C. chloramphenicol.
D. Vancomycin

1. A
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. B
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. A
16. B
17. B
18. C
19. D
20. c
21. D
22. B
23. A
24. A
25. C

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